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Desert Naturalist's avatar

Interesting post. It reminds me of a possible response to the Fine-Tuning Argument from Order/Coherence; why does our world look orderly/coherent instead of being a chatoic mess? One of the responses offered to such an argument is that the existence of any physical universe is going to have order as a necessary state of affairs as C.M. Lorkowski points out:

"First, it helps to consider whether there is a viable alternative to an ordered universe, presumably a universe with no order, that is, a completely chaotic universe. But while we can talk casually about such a notion, many have argued that the concept of a completely chaotic universe is incoherent. This is because any coherent picture requires kinds to serve as sortals, at minimum, the most basic kinds such as “matter” and “space.” But to have any such kind requires that there are rules, definitions, natures, essences, etc., something that makes it a member of that kind rather than something else and thereby allows us to conceptually distinguish that kind. This is true of even the broadest kinds such as “matter.” A truly chaotic universe would therefore have to be a universe without any kinds, but such a state is inconceivable. A universe could certainly have a different order, perhaps even significantly less order, but it is far from clear that it could have no order at all. [10] The very existence of the universe seems to entail some order, at least enough to have rules governing basic kinds, [11] but once we have an ordered universe, it is not clear that there is anything left to explain, save perhaps how it is ordered." (Atheism Considered, pg. 81)

I think in a similar sort of way, your argument points out that across the modal space, even disharmonious worlds are going to contain the same datum in terms of the "lucky conincidences" that the original psychophysical harmony tries to highlight as datum pointing to Theism, thus it seems the relevant datum here is just going to be a function of the relevant modal space, just as "order" is a necessary function of any possible world that contains a physical universe.

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Alex Popescu's avatar

Hey Both Sides,

Sorry for the late comment, but had some thoughts I wanted to share. To start with, I take psychophysical harmony to be about the harmony between phenomenal states and psychological states, not between phenomenal states and behavior. What explains the harmony between psychological states and behavior are the laws of physics and biology. So those world where people smelt strawberries whenever they stubbed their toes and continued stubbing their toes are actually psychophysically (a bit of a misnomer yeah) harmonious worlds, since the phenomenal (good smell) is aligned with the psychological (desire to engage in action which elicits good smell). But notice that in such worlds such people are at an evolutionary disadvantage, since obviously toe stubbing behavior is not good for organisms. So it’s no surprise that psychological states and behavior are well aligned in our universe, as we would expect them to be well aligned in any universe with natural selection pressures regardless of the psychophysical laws.

Cutter and co. will often abbreviate the argument as being about the alignment between behavior and phenomenology, because it’s assumed that psychological states will always be well aligned with behavior, as this is explained by evolution. But really they mean that it’s a coincidence that our psychology is well aligned with our phenomenology.

So when you say that the psychological states in D1 don’t explain the actions of said people, and hence disharmonious worlds are actually incredibly coincidental, I think this is a misunderstanding. The people in D1 should have the exact same psychological and neural profiles as ordinary people, it’s only their phenomenology which is weird.

Also, it’s the descriptive components of D1 and H1 people’s psychological states which explains their behavior, not their normative affects. For example, we wouldn’t say that the actions of a person who saved a puppy was explained by the fact that saving puppies was good, or that actions of a person who drowned a puppy was explained by the fact that saving puppies is bad etc…

Rather, such actions are explained by descriptive facts about the person (e.g. they believed that drowning puppies is good, they are disposed to sadism etc…) irrespective of the normative facts. Hence there’s no reason to assume that D1 actions are unexplained; we would presumably explain their actions the same way we would explain the actions of people in our universe. That they believed that receiving a ticket should be met with a verbal response and so forth (or if you think beliefs are grounded in phenomenology, that they were disposed to give a verbal response). It’s just that their phenomenology associated with their beliefs and actions is weird. But their beliefs (grounded in their dispositions or cognitive architectures) are still the same as ours.

Now this gets a bit tricky if you think that cognition is grounded in phenomenology. Then you would technically have to say that people in disharmonious worlds don’t believe the same things as us, but a puzzle would still remain as to why our beliefs are correct (and why they are appropriately aligned with our psychological dispositions), whereas they are incorrect in disharmonious worlds. And even if that were the case, it wouldn’t be coincidental that D1 people have their psychology aligned with their behavior, since again their behavior is explained by their dispositions and neural makeup, which is the same as ours.

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